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Direct Taxation

May 2025

UJA Taxation TImes - Foreign Companies and Their Tax Disputes in India - Direct Tax

Introduction

Picture of by Anjali Darak
by Anjali Darak

Manager - Direct Tax

With increasing global financial scrutiny, the disclosure of foreign assets has become a critical part of tax compliance in India. Failure to report such assets in the income tax return can lead to heavy penalties, interest and even prosecution under Indian tax laws. This article explores the key consequences of non-disclosure and why it’s essential for taxpayers to stay compliant.

Coming to this month’s Taxation Times, here’s what we have:

  1. An article on Understanding the New Tax Regime for Startups: Opportunities and Challenges.
  2. Case Laws from various courts & jurisdictions.
  3. Tax Compliance Calendar – May 2025
  4. Circulars & Notifications – April 2025
  5. Tax News from around the world

We hope that you find this month’s edition of the Taxation Times useful. In case you have any feedback or need us to include any information to make this issue more informative, please feel free to write to us at info@uja.in

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Best Regards,
UJA Tax Team

Non-Disclosure of Foreign Assets in Income Tax Returns: A Serious Offense with Legal Consequences

In an increasingly globalized world, it’s common for individuals to hold assets and earn income across borders. To ensure tax compliance and curb illicit financial flows, governments have introduced stringent regulations regarding the disclosure of foreign income and assets.

In India, residents and ordinarily resident (ROR) are mandated to report their overseas holdings in their Income Tax Return (ITR). Failure to do so can trigger serious consequences under the Income Tax Act, 1961 and the Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015, commonly known as the Black Money Act (BMA). Non-disclosure may result in hefty penalties, interest charges and even criminal prosecution, underscoring the importance of complete and accurate reporting.

Who is Required to Report Foreign Assets?

Only individuals who are classified as “Resident and Ordinarily Resident (ROR)” under Indian tax law are required to disclose foreign assets. This includes:

  • Foreign bank accounts
  • Foreign investments (stocks, bonds, mutual funds, real estate etc.)
  • Foreign trusts or beneficial interests
  • Any other financial interest or ownership overseas

Legal Consequences of Non-Disclosure

Under Indian Tax Law (BMA & Income Tax Act):

  • Penalty under the Black Money Act, 2015
    Applicability: If you are an ROR and fail to disclose foreign income/assets.
    Penalty: ₹10 lakh per undisclosed foreign asset, irrespective of its value. As per finance act 2024 (2), Provided that section 43 of Black Money (Undisclosed Foreign Income and Assets) and Imposition of Tax Act, 2015 shall not apply in respect of an asset or assets (other than immovable property), where the aggregate value of such asset or assets does not exceed twenty lakh rupees.
  • Criminal Prosecution
    Under BMA: Imprisonment from 3 to 10 years for willful non-disclosure.
    Under the Income Tax Act: Imprisonment from 6 months to 7 years, plus fines, for willfully attempting to evade tax.
  • Reopening of Past Assessments:
    The Income Tax Department can reopen assessments up to 16 years back in cases of undisclosed foreign assets or income.
  • Tax on Undisclosed Income:
    Tax is levied at the maximum marginal rate (currently 30% + applicable cess and surcharge) on the value of the undisclosed asset/income.
  • Interest on Tax Dues:
    Interest under Sections 234A, 234B and 234C may be charged for late or insufficient tax payment.
    Loss of Tax Benefits Potential denial of:
    • DTAA (Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement) benefits
    • Deductions/exemptions if the return is considered defective or invalid

Can It Be Rectified?

Yes, if the non-disclosure was unintentional or due to oversight, you may be able to remedy it:

  • Revise your ITR within the permitted timeline.
  • File an updated return under Section 139(8A) of the Income Tax Act.
  • It is strongly recommended to consult a tax expert or chartered accountant to ensure accurate disclosure and minimize penalties.

Conclusion

Non-disclosure of foreign assets in an income tax return is a serious matter, not a mere technical slip. With the advent of the Black Money Act, Indian tax authorities are taking a tough stance against unreported foreign wealth.

Ensuring accurate disclosure is not just about avoiding penalties and prosecution—it’s also about promoting transparency and integrity in the financial system. Voluntary compliance, informed decision-making and professional guidance can save you from legal troubles and offer peace of mind.

Case Laws

DATE: April 9, 2025
[2025] 173 taxmann.com 343 (Mumbai - Trib.) IN THE ITAT MUMBAI BENCH 'K(SMC)' Araadhya Jain Trust v. Incomep-tax Officer
Section 164, read with section 2(29C), of the Income-tax Act, 1961

Fact I :

  • The appellant/assessee, a Private Discretionary Trust, filed its return of income for the assessment year 2023-24, declaring income of Rs. 4.85 lakhs. In terms of the provision contained under section 164 read with section 2(29C), the assessee paid tax at the ”maximum marginal rate.

    While processing the return of income filed by the assessee, the Centralized Processing Centre (CPC) levied the highest rate of surcharge on the maximum marginal rate at which the tax was computed.

    On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) held that in terms of the definition of ”maximum marginal rate”, the highest rate of surcharge would be applicable on the tax computed at the maximum marginal rate.

Held I:

  • it is held that in case of Private Discretionary Trusts, whose income is chargeable to tax at maximum marginal rate, surcharge has to be computed on the income tax having reference to the slab rates prescribed in the Finance Act under the heading “surcharge on income tax” appearing in Paragraph A, Part 1, First Schedule, applicable to the relevant assessment year.

In Favour of: The Assessee

[2025] 173 taxmann.com 342 (Mumbai - Trib.) IN THE ITAT MUMBAI BENCH 'B' Shilpa Shetty Kundra v. DCIT

Penalty – For failure to answer question, sign statements (Sub-section (1)(d)) – Assessment year 2020-21 – Assessing Officer levied penalty under section 272A(1)(d) in respect of non-compliance of notices issued under section 142(1) – However, in subsequent assessment order passed under section 143(3), Assessing Officer had expressed satisfaction with compliances made by assessee – Whether since Assessing Officer himself had deemed to have condoned non-compliance by assessee on earlier occasions, penalty under section 272A(1)(d) could not be imposed.

Reference: Section 272A, read with section 142, of the Income-tax Act, 1961

Fact II :

  • The Assessing Officer passed an order thereby levying a penalty of Rs. 20,000 in respect of non-compliance with the notice under section 142(1).
  • On appeal, the Commissioner (Appeals) upheld the penalty order.

Held II:

  • From the records, it is found that the penalty in the present case has been levied in respect of non-compliance with notices issued under section 142(1) dated 4-8-2022 and 11-8-2022. However, it is found that in response to the subsequent notices, the assessee made necessary compliances and accordingly, assessment was completed under section 143(3) dated 21-9-2022. Hence, it can be seen that the Assessing Officer himself has deemed to have condoned the non-compliance by the assessee on earlier occasions, because subsequently the necessary replies containing information and evidence were furnished by the assessee to assist the Assessing Officer in completing of assessment. Since the assessment in the present case was completed under section 143(3), therefore penalty under section 272A(1)(d) cannot be imposed. [Para 5]

    Therefore, considering the facts of the present that the assessee while filing reply dated 15-9-2022, along with necessary information/evidence to the subsequent notice dated 12-9-2022, has specifically mentioned that the reply is being filed in respect of all the earlier notices and has thus assisted the Assessing Officer in completion of the assessment. Moreover, the assessment order in the present case was passed under section 143(3) and not under section 144, which means that the Assessing Officer had expressed his satisfaction with the compliances made by the assessee. [Para 6]

    Therefore, in view of above discussion and also keeping in view the principles laid down in the decision of Coordinate Bench of Tribunal in the case Bhavana Modi v. ITO [2025] 170 taxmann.com 236 (Raipur – Trib.), the levy of penalty of Rs.20,000 under section 272A(1)(d) in the present case is invalid. Hence, considering the ratio of law followed in various judicial decisions as discussed above, it is appropriate to set aside the order of the Commissioner (Appeals) and direct the Assessing Officer to delete the penalty and it is ordered accordingly. Thus, all the above grounds as raised by the assessee stand allowed. [Para 7]

    Consequently, the appeal filed by the assessee is allowed. [Para 8]

In Favour of: The Assessee

Circulars and Notifications March 2025

Circulars / Orders

SECTION 119 OF THE INCOME-TAX ACT, 1961 - CENTRAL BOARD OF DIRECT TAXES - INSTRUCTIONS TO SUBORDINATE AUTHORITIES - WAIVER ON LEVY OF INTEREST UNDER SECTION 201(1A) (ii) OR 206C (7), AS CASE MAYBE, IN SPECIFIC CASES
  • Section 201(1A) of the Income-tax Act (hereinafter “the Act”) provides for the levy of interest on account of failure to deduct or pay the deducted tax to the credit of the Central Government by the deductor. Further, section 206C (7) of the Act provides for the levy of interest on account of failure to collect or pay the collected tax to the credit of the Central Government by the collector.
  • Representations have been received by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (hereinafter “the Board”) that while making payments of Taxes Deducted at Source (TDS) and Taxes Collected at Source (TCS) to the credit of the Central Government as per sections 200 and 206C of the Act, the taxpayers have encountered technical glitches. On account of such glitches, while the payment is initiated by the taxpayers/deductors/collectors and the amounts are debited from their bank accounts on or before the due date, the actual credit to the Central Government is done after the due date. In such cases, notices have been received by such taxpayers for the levy of interest under section 201(lA)(ii)/206C (7) of the Act, as the case may be.
  • In exercise of the powers under section 119 of the Act, the Board, hereby directs that the Chief Commissioner of Income-tax (COT) or Director General of Income-tax (DGIT) [or in case there is no CCIT and DGIT, then Principal Chief Commissioner of Income-tax (PrCCIT)] may reduce or waive interest charged under section 201(lA)(ii)/206C(7) of the Act in the class of cases where-
    • The payment is initiated by the taxpayers/deductors/collectors and the amounts are debited from their bank accounts on or before the due date
    • The tax could not be credited to the Central Government, before the due date because of technical problems, beyond the control of the taxpayer/deductor/collector.
  • The CCIT or DGIT or PrCCIT, as the case may be, examining an application for     waiver of interest under this order shall pass a speaking order after providing adequate opportunity of being heard to the applicant and after verification of technical glitches from the bank/Directorate of Systems.
  • Even if the interest under section 201(1A) (ii)/206C (7) of the Act has already been paid by the taxpayer, the same can be considered for waiver and a refund may be given to the deductor. if a waiver is ordered.
  • No waiver application shall be entertained beyond one year from the end of the financial year for which the interest under section 201(1A) (ii)/206C (7) of the Act is charged.
  • An application received for waiver of interest under section 201(1A) (ii)/206C (7) of the Act shall be disposed of within a period of six months from the end of the month in which such application is received.
  • The order issued by the CCIT, DGIT or PrCCIT, as the case may be, is final and no petition against that order shall be entertained by the Board.
  • The above will come into effect from the date of issue of this Circular. The Hindi version shall follow.
    CIRCULAR NO. 5/2025 [F.NO. 275/92/2024-IT(BUDGET)], DATED 28-3-2025

Press Release

USE OF E-GOVERNANCE AND E-COURTS IN INCOME TAX APPELLATE TRIBUNAL - OVER 26,000 APPEALS AND APPLICATIONS WERE FILED ELECTRONICALLY THROUGH E-FILING PORTAL UP TO 28-2-2025 - COURT ROOMS AT NEW OFFICE PREMISES OF ITAT, DELHI AND LUCKNOW BENCHES HAVE ALSO BEEN EQUIPPED WITH STATE-OF-THE-ART VIDEO CONFERENCING INFRASTRUCTURE- STATE-OF-THE-ART VIDEO CONFERENCING INFRASTRUCTURE FACILITATING UNINTERRUPTED VIRTUAL/HYBRID HEARINGS

The e-filing portal has been launched in the Income-tax Appellate Tribunal (ITAT) for facilitating the electronic filing of appeals, applications, petitions and documents, by the stakeholders. The e-filing portal continues to gain the acceptance of the stakeholders. Over 26,000 appeals and applications were filed electronically through an e-filing portal before various benches of ITAT during the year, up to 28-2-2025. The provision of free and high-speed internet at various benches has been provided through Optical Fiber Cable (OFC), for access by all stakeholders. The courtrooms at the new office premises of the ITAT, Delhi and Lucknow benches have also been equipped with a state-of-the-art video conferencing infrastructure to provide a better hybrid/virtual hearing experience to the stakeholders. The upgradation of infrastructure, including the installation of the latest equipment, is also being enabled continuously to facilitate uninterrupted virtual/hybrid hearings.

In compliance with the directions of the Hon’ble Supreme Court of India, ITAT has implemented hybrid/virtual hearings at all Benches, in letter and spirit, which facilitates litigants to attend a hearing of their cases virtually. The benches of the ITAT are not declining the requests of the parties for virtual hearings. For the period from July 2023 to December 2024, a total of 1,22,302 hearings of appeals have been conducted through video conferencing before various Benches of ITAT.

This information was given by the Minister of State (Independent Charge) of the Ministry of Law and Justice and Minister of State in the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, Shri Arjun Ram Meghwal, in a written reply to a question in the Rajya Sabha today.

PRESS RELEASE, DATED 03rd April, 2025

Notifications

INCOME-TAX (NINTH AMENDMENT) RULES, 2025 – AMENDMENT IN RULE 114

In exercise of the powers conferred by sub-section (2A) of section 139AA, read with section 295 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961), the Central Board of Direct Taxes hereby makes the following rules further to amend the Income-tax Rules, 1962, namely:

Short title and commencement

  • These rules may be called the Income-tax (Ninth Amendment) Rules, 2025.
    They shall come into force with effect from the date of their publication in the Official Gazette.
  • In the Income-tax Rules, 1962 (hereinafter referred to as the said rules), in rule 114, after sub-rule (5A), the following shall be inserted, namely:
    “(5AA) Every person who has been allotted permanent account number based on Enrolment ID of Aadhaar application form filed prior to the 1st day of October, 2024, shall intimate his Aadhaar number to the Principal Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or Director General of Income-tax (Systems) or the person authorised by the said authorities.”
  • In the said rules, in rule 114, in sub-rule (6), for the words, brackets and figures “intimation of Aadhaar number in sub-rule (5)”, the words, brackets and figures “intimation of Aadhaar number in sub-rules (5) and (5AA)” shall be substituted.

NOTIFICATION NO. 25/2025 [G.S.R. 217(E)/F. NO. 370142/1/2025-TPL], DATED 3-4-2025

Tax Calender: April 2025

7th May 2025

  • Equalization Levy Deposit Due Dates: Collection and recovery of equalisation levy on specified services in the month of April, 2025
  • TDS/TCS Deposit:
    Due Dates      Due date for deposit of Tax deducted/collected for the month of April, 2025. However, all sum deducted/collected by an office of the government shall be paid to the credit of the Central Government on the same day where tax is paid without production of an Income tax Challan

15th May 2025

  • Due date for issue of TDS Certificate for tax deducted under section 194S/194-IA/194-IB/194M in the month of March 2025
  • Form 24G:
    Due date for furnishing of Form 24G by an office of the Government where TDS/TCS for the month of April, 2025
  • Form 27EQ:
    Quarterly statement of TCS deposited for the quarter ending March 31, 2025

30th May 2025

  • Quarterly TCS certificate in respect of tax collected by any person for the quarter ending March 31st, 2025
  • Due date for furnishing of challan-cum-statement in respect of tax deducted under section 194-IA/ 194-IB/ 194M/ 194S in the month of April, 2025

31st May 2025

  • Form 9A:
    Application for exercise of option under clause (2) of the Explanation to sub-section (1) of section 11 of the Income Tax Act, 1961 (if the assessee is required to submit a return of income on or before July 31, 2025).
  • Form 24Q/26Q/27Q:
    Quarterly statement of TDS deposited for the quarter ending March 31, 2025.
  • Form 61A/B:
    Due date for furnishing of statement of financial transaction (in Form No. 61A/61B) as required to be furnished under subsection (1) of section 285BA of the Act respect to the Financial Year 2024-25.
  • Form 10BD:
    Statement of particulars to be filed by the reporting person under clause (viii) of sub-section (5) of section 80G and clause (i) to sub-section (1A) of section 35 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 for the Financial Year 2024-2025.
  • Form 10BE:
    Certificate of donation under clause (ix) of sub-section (5) of section 80G and under clause (ii) to sub-section (1A) of section 35 for the Financial Year 2024-2025.
  • Form 10:
    Statement to be furnished to the Assessing Officer/Prescribed Authority under clause (a) of the Explanation 3 to the third proviso to clause (23C) of section 10 or under clause (a) of sub-section (2) of section 11 of the Income-tax Act, 1961 (if the assessee is required to submit return of income on July 31, 2025).

Tax News from Around the World

Global Minimum Tax Implementation

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) reports that nearly 90% of multinational enterprises (MNEs) with revenues exceeding €750 million will be subject to a 15% global minimum tax by 2025. This initiative, part of the OECD’s two-pillar solution, aims to ensure a minimum level of taxation across jurisdictions.

Canada’s Digital Services Tax

Canada’s Digital Services Tax (DST) Act, effective from June 28, 2024, imposes a 3% tax on revenues from digital services provided to Canadian users. Companies with global revenues over €750 million and Canadian digital services revenues exceeding $20 million are required to comply. The first payments are due by June 30, 2025, with the tax being retroactive to January 1, 2022. ​

S. Tariffs Impacting Allies

The U.S. administration has imposed a 10% tariff on imports from allies like Singapore and Australia, despite existing free trade agreements. This move has raised concerns among these nations, as they are also strategic defense partners of the U.S. The tariffs are seen as part of a broader strategy to pressure allies into supporting more aggressive trade policies.

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